MrQ: With my previous teacher I played defence to weak 2 – double with 16+, overcall with 11-15 and 5 card good suit. If I followed this, I would have just overcalled 3♥. I guess I got a bit scared to go to 3 level with
MrQ: Seems a lot of things went wrong here. Should West double with this holding? East showed the other major rather than diamonds – again, misunderstanding how we play takeout doubles. ♠10 lead and ♠Q wining a trick (East thought South is sitting with AQ
Bidding: N opened 1♥ – 2♦ – 2♠ – 3♦ – 4NT – 5♣ – 5♦ – all pass MrQ: I presume there are ways to show void in clubs and singleton in spades? You were in 6♦. Guru: Yes, we were in 6♦ but
Bidding: N opened 1♥ – 2♣ – 3♥ – 3NT – all pass MrQ: Should North rebid something else instead of 3♥ to show strength and maybe investigate slam (you were in 6NT)? Why did South bid 3NT after 3♥ (showing 6+ hearts) not 4♥?
MrQ: Shouldn’t West go through RKCB rather than bid 6♠ straight away? 3♥ shows only 15 points after 2♣ from West so we could be theoretically lacking 2 aces. Was 3♥ by East better than 3♠ (to show 6 spades) – with void in diamonds
Bidding: E opens 1NT – 2♣ – 2♦ – 3♠ – 3NT – all pass MrQ: I know 3♠ from West was inviting not forcing (so East could have passed 3♠ with lower end of 1NT), but I really wanted to escape playing in NT. Is
Bidding: W opens 1♦ – 1♠ – 1NT – 2♠ – all pass Guru: When West rebids 1NT, East should pass. MrQ: Yes, I (East) should have passed 1NT rebid. Shouldn’t W rebid 2♥ – reverse with 17HCP and 4 hearts – instead of 1NT?
MrQ: This time the bidding went without interference from opponents. After W opened 1♥ and rebid 1NT, my thinking was: she shows me 15-17 HCP, she has at most 3 clubs and at most 3 diamonds, 4 hearts, so at least 3 spades if not
Guru: Why 4♠ and not 3NT? MrQ: The moment we left that table my partner said he should have bid 3NT (instead of 4♠) which would mean for me that he’s got enough points for us to be in game (because I already showed 6-9