MrQ: Shouldn’t West go through RKCB rather than bid 6♠ straight away? 3♥ shows only 15 points after 2♣ from West so we could be theoretically lacking 2 aces. Was 3♥ by East better than 3♠ (to show 6 spades) – with void in diamonds
From Thursday 1/3/18. A number of quite amazing hands this week, I really don’t know which to report. We’ve had quite a few discussions on slams, so maybe this week we’ll talk about something different, a hand which was very competitive in nature and also
Bidding: E opens 1NT – 2♣ – 2♦ – 3♠ – 3NT – all pass MrQ: I know 3♠ from West was inviting not forcing (so East could have passed 3♠ with lower end of 1NT), but I really wanted to escape playing in NT. Is
It seems that in this super modern age of bridge the penalty double is obsolete. But surely most of us still play the double of a weak 1NT opening as basically a PENALTY double? What do you need to double a 1NT opening? I go
Bidding: W opens 1♦ – 1♠ – 1NT – 2♠ – all pass Guru: When West rebids 1NT, East should pass. MrQ: Yes, I (East) should have passed 1NT rebid. Shouldn’t W rebid 2♥ – reverse with 17HCP and 4 hearts – instead of 1NT?
Do you play Precision? If not, have your ever thought of taking up the “Big Club” system? It definitely has a lot of merit if you want to try it. Let me give you a bidding problem which I encountered this Thursday before I tell
MrQ: This time the bidding went without interference from opponents. After W opened 1♥ and rebid 1NT, my thinking was: she shows me 15-17 HCP, she has at most 3 clubs and at most 3 diamonds, 4 hearts, so at least 3 spades if not
Guru: Why 4♠ and not 3NT? MrQ: The moment we left that table my partner said he should have bid 3NT (instead of 4♠) which would mean for me that he’s got enough points for us to be in game (because I already showed 6-9
As long as you know how to bid a slam, there is usually no need to bid a grand slam in a normal match-point session, especially on club nights. But nevertheless does it not feel great when you do bid and make a grand slam?